The App Store is the virtual equivalent of a Department Store. In Dept stores brands get to sell their goods in set locations, and pay a commissions to the Dept. Store.
Your Department Store analogy omits a fundamental point which makes it largely inaccurate for describing the App Store...
The App Store is a sales incentiviser for the iPhone, which Apple sells for a profit (most of the company's profits). The presence of 3rd party apps, is a primary sales motivator for the iPhone.
For the Department Store analogy to be correct, you would have to include that the only way for people to get to the Department Store from their homes, is in cars they had to buy from the Department Store company, and that the existence of the stallholder's products in the Department Store was in fact the primary motivator for people to buy cars from the Department Store company in the first place.
Why should the stall holders be paying the Department Store owner's costs, for something whose primary purpose is to increase the Department Store owner's sales of their primary product (cars)? Why is the Department Store owner not required to pay a share of their car profits to the stall holders, whose products provide the root demand behind the Department Store company's profits?
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